Use of the Oppressors’ Languages

BTW, I know you've been led to erroneously believe that Canadians are not Americans, and that "American" is a nationality, but neither of those things is true. America is a supercontinent, and up and down this continent people have referred to themselves and other inhabitants here as Americans for centuries before the USA ever existed. It's really past time to correct this grammatical and geographical error.

Really?

The first use of the term America by Europeans was in 1507. The US began to “exist” in 1776. So Europeans were using the term for less than 300 years before the USA.

During that time the indigenous populations of what is now “the Americas” far outnumbered the European invaders. I bet you that few of those indigenous people were referring to their lands by the words that the invaders used. In fact, I suggest that the majority of indigenous peoples throughout “the Americas” had even heard the term.

Even those colonialists in what is now the US and Canada didn’t refer to ourselves as American. We were “British” who were living in “British Noeth America”. North of the 49th parallel that remained after 1776 through to the establishment of Canada through the British Parliament’s passing of the “British North American Act”.

No, I think that the term “American” had limited usage before the establishment of the USA, was a term imposed by invaders, not widely adopted by indigenous peoples, and not even adopted by all colonizing people.